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February 6, 2012

Solved question Paper of IPO Examination held on 29th January 2012

Rajesh Kumawat | 20:57 | Best Blogger Tips

1  In which  case it was  held by  the supreme court that  preamble is the basic feature of the constitution

Answer  :  in re Keshwananda Bharti
2   In which cases it was held by  the supreme court that an amendment of the constitution  under article 368 was law within  the meaning of article 13

Answer : in re In GolakNath Case
3 The number of articles in Indian  constitution is

Answer  395 
4 The list of states and union territories is mentioned in which  schedule of the constitution

Answer  First 
5 The establishment and constitution of supreme  Court has been provided in

Answer  Article 124
6  Which provision of constitution says that civil   and judicial  authorities to act in aid to Supreme court?

Answer  Article 144
7 Which provision  of constitution says that High courts to be courts of record

Answer  Article  215
8  Writ jurisdiction of supreme court is provided on art 32 and that of high courts art 226

9 Gram Sabha has been created under which article of constitution

Answer   Article 243 A
10 Right to property under art 300A is  a

Answer Constitutional Right
11 Power of parliament to restrict trade and  commerce has been described in

Answer Article 302

12 Public service commissions for the union and states are created

Answer : Article 315
13 The rules of dismissal and reduction of rank  of civil servants emanates from

Answer   article 311 of constitution
14  Power of governor  to grant pardon is given in

Answer    Art 161
15 Preventive detention according to Art 22 can be enforced

16 Proclamation of emergency is valid up to 

Answer  It has to be for 6 months only and it needed further a second resolution has to be passed
17 Protection in respect of conviction for offences is provided under

Answer   Article 20
18 In  the Indian Polity , ultimate sovereignty rests with 

Answer  :  The people
19 The prime minister is

   Answer :          Head of the government
20 The finance commission is appointed by the

Answer : President
21 Which article provides fundamental right of right to education

Answer :  Article 21A
22 In india who  is the legal advisor  to the state government

Answer : Advocate  General

Q23  If directive principles of states  policy  is infringed
Answer: There is no remedy by judicial proceedings
Q24  Indira  sawheny V union  of India  is a  case dealing with
Answer : Reservation for OBC
25  Article 17 of the  constitution
Answer : Abolishes  untouchability 
26 which part of the constitution  reflects the mind and  ideals  of the framers
Answer : Preamble
27  The power of institution of suits and proceedings against the central government and state government is provided in which article
Answer  Article 300
28The attorney General  of India holds office  during  the pleasure of the
Answer : President
29 The eighth  schedule of the constitution contains
Answer : List of language recognaized by the constitution
30 National emergency can be declared by the president
Answer : On recommendation of the council  of ministers
31 The provisions of art 311 does not apply to
Answer All of these
32 who decides whether a bill is a money bill or not
Answer :Speaker of the Lok Sabha
33 who is the Ex – office Chairman of the Raja Sabha
Answer : The Vice-President

34 Which article seperates Judiciary from executive
Answer :Habeas Corpus
35 All  india  services has been created  under which article
Answer :Article 50
36 Which of the following  right is not provided under the consumer protection act
Answer : Article 312
37  The pecuniary jurisdiction of consumer state commission is
Answer : Right to punish
38 The pecuniary jurisdiction of consumer state commission is
Answer : None of the above
39 The limitation for filling appeal  under the consumer protection act is
 Answer : 30 days from the order
40 Medical services were brought under the consumer protection act by the supreme court in the famous case of
 Answer : Indian medical association v V.P shata
41  Consumer mentioned u/section 2 of the act includes
Answer  Both of them
42 The limitation for filing a  consumer complaint is
Answer : Two year
43 The delay in filing consumer complaint can be condoned under
Answer: Section 24 A(2) of the Act
44 Consumer disputes  redressal fourm to be known as 
 Answer : District Forum
45 The responsibility of a consumer under the act  includes
Answer:  All of the above
46  Appeal  from the orders of consumer national commission lies to
Answer : Supreme Court
47 under which  provision district forum can impose punitive damages
Answer: Section 14(d) of the Act
48 A person against whom  an order has been passed by the district forum may go  into appeal to the consumer state commission subject to  his depositing
Answer :Lesser of (A) & (B)
49 The president of consumer state  commission is appointed by the state government in  constitution with the
Answer :Chief Justice of the High Court
50 The pecuniary jurisdiction of  consumer national commission is
Answer : Above 1 Core
51 The provision of transfer of complaints from one district forum to another within the state vests with the state commission under 
Answer : Section 17 A of the Act
52 The word  “information “ under the  RTI act includes
Answer : Both of them
53  The RTI act  came into effect in the year
Answer : 2005
54  The provision of the RTI act giving  citizen right to  information is
Answer : Section 3
55 The language of an application  under the RTI act may be
 Answer : All of the above
56  The period for filing  appeal under the RTI act  is  
  Answer : 30  days
57  An application making request for information
Answer : Shall not be required to give any reason for requesting the information
58 The general time limit for providing information sought under  RTI act is
Answer : 30 days
59 The type of information exempted under the RTI act  are mentioned in 
Answer : Section 8
60 The term  of offices for the chief information commissioner and information commissioners is
Answer : Five year and  superannuation age being 65 years, whichever is earlier
61  Bar of Jursdiction of courts in respect of any  order made under the RTI act is contained in
Answer : Section 23
62 The umbrella organization under the RTI act to coordinates and monitor the implementation of the  provisions of the act is
Answer : National Advisory council
63  The object of the RTI act is
Answer : All the above
64  RTI act applies to 
Answer : Only A & B
65  The period for  filling second appeal under section 19 of the RTI act is
Answer : 90 days
66  The limit  of penalty  to be  imposed by the state information commission or the central information commission under section 20  of the act on the principal information officer  is rupees 
Answer :
67  Number of chapters in the Indian  penal code 1860 are
Answer : 23
68 How many types of punishments have been prescribed under the Indian penal code
Answer : Five
69  Chapter V of Indian  penal code deals with
 Answer : Abetment
70  abettor is a person
Answer : Who instigates the commission of offence
71  Preventing services of  summons or other proceeding or preventing publication thereof shall be published with
Answer : Any of A and B
72  Under section  99 the right of private defence is
Available against public servants only when  their acts cause reasonable apprehension  of death  or grievous  hurt
73  A public  servant absconding to avoid service of summons or other proceeding shall be punished with
Answer : Simple imprisonment for 1 month an fine Rs 500
74  Obstructing public servant in discharge functions shall be punished with
 Answer : Imprisonment for 3 months, or fine of Rs 500/- or both
75 Numbers of chapters in the Indian evidence act 1872
Answer : 11
76  indian evidence act  1872 does not apply on affidavits and arbitration
Answer : Correct statement
77 Relevancy is

78 RTI act 2005 covers all the state in the India  except
Answer :  Jammu & Kashmir
79 Which  one of the following is not a member of  committee for appointment of CIC
Answer :  Speaker of Lok sabha
80  which of the following  is not a writ  provided in the constitution of india

81  Code of civil procedure came in to force in the year

Answer  01-01-2009 1908
82  Mesne  profits under CPC means
Answer : Owner of property
83 Foreign judgment under CPC means
Answer : The Judgment  of  foreign court
84  Decree of a civil  court means and  includes

85 Judgment debtor means

Answer :A person against whom decree has been passed
86  Pleader menas
Answer : Any person entitled to appear and plead for another in court 
87 The word  judge under CPC  means

Answer :  Presiding officer of a Civil Court
88 The word ‘ order ‘under section 2 of CPC means
Answer : formal expression of any decision of a Civil Court 
89 Share  in a corporation shall be  deemed  to  include 
Answer : Bond , stock ,debenture stock
90  Apart from the state of Jammu & Kashmir which is the state where on whole of it CPC does not  apply
Answer : Nagaland

91.     A proclamation under section 82 of CrPC can be issued against a person against whom a warrant has been issued Thus a proclamation can be issued against

Answer :   Accused offender
92  Attachment of the property of the person absconding

Answer :   Can be issued simultaneously with the publication of the proclamation of the proclamation u/s 82 of CrPC
93.     A proclamation requiring a person to appear must be published giving

Answer :   Not less than 30 day time to the person concerned
94.     Period of limitation for filing claims and objections to the attachment of any property attached u/s 83 of CrPC by any person other than the proclaimed person, as provided u/s 84 of CrPC is

Answer :   Within six month of attachment
95.     Period of limitation for filing a suit to establish the right over the property attached by a person other than the proclaimed person, who has filed claims and objections to the attachment, is

Answer :    One year from the date of disallowing the claim
96.     If the person proclaimed appears within the period specified in the proclamation, the property attached:

Answer :    Shall be released from attachment
97.     The right of claiming the attached property or sale proceeds thereof by the proclaimed person flows from:

Answer :    Section 85 of Cr.PC
98.     If the proclaimed person does not appear within the period specified in the proclamation, the property under attached:

Answer :   Both A and B
99.     A proclaimed person whose property has been attached can claim the property or the sale proceeds, on appearance.

Answer :    Within two year of attachment
100.     The right of claiming the attached property or sale proceeds thereof by the proclaimed person is subject to his satisfying the court that:

Answer :   Both A and B
101.     The power of issuing proclamation u/s 82 CrPC

Answer :   All the above
102.     A proclamation issued u/s 82 CrPC is issued

Answer :   To secure the attendance of the person concerned before the court
103.     Attachment order u/s 83 of CrPC is to be passed

Answer :  by a court issuing proclamation u/sec 82 Crpc
104.     Attachment u/s 83 CrPC of a land paying revenue to the state government, be made

Answer :    Through the District collector within whose jurisdiction land is situated.
105.     A  fact forming  of the same transaction is relevant u/s 6 of Evidence Act:

Answer :   Through not in issue and may have occurred at the same time & place or at different time & place
106.     Several classes of facts, which are connected with the transaction(s) in a particular mode are relevant

Answer :   Under Section 6 of Evidence Act
107.     Motive behind an Act is relevant

Answer :   Under Section 8 of Evidence Act
108.     Preparation for an Act is relevant:

Answer :   Under Section 8 of Evidence Act
109     Under section 8 of Evidence Act conduct is relevant:

Answer :   Both A&B
110.     Under section 8 of Evidence Act:

Answer :  All the above are relevant
111.     When the conduct of any person is relevant, any statement made to him or in his presence and hearing, which affects such conduct is relevant:

Answer :   Under Section 8 of Evidence Act
112.     Facts which are cause of facts in issue are relevant

Answer :   Under Section 7 of Evidence Act
113.     A person is not entitled to give evidence of fact which he is disentitled to prove by any provision of law

Answer :   Under Section 5 of Evidence Act
114.     The question is, whether certain goods ordered from B were delivered to A, The goods were delivered to several intermediate persons successively.  Each delivery is a relevant fact:

Answer :   Under Section 7 of Evidence Act
115.     The question is, whether  A murdered B Marks on the ground, produced by a struggle at or near the place where the murder was committed are relevant Facts:

Answer :   Under Section 7 of Evidence Act
116.     A is accused of murder of B by beating him.  Whatever was said or done by A or B or the by-standers at the beating, is a relevant fact:

Answer :   Under Section 6 of Evidence Act
117.     A is tired for murder of B by poison.  The fact that before the death of B,  A procured poison similar to that which was administered to B, is a relevant fact:

Answer :   Under Section 8 of Evidence Act
118.     The question is is whether A committed a crime.  The fact that A absconded after receiving a letter warning that enquiry was being made for the criminal and contents of the letter, are relevant:

Answer :   Under Section 8 of Evidence Act
119.     The question is, whether A was robbed.  The fact that soon after the alleged robbery, he made a complaint relating to the offence detailing the circumstances, are relevant:

Answer :   Under Section 8 of Evidence Act
120.     A sues B upon a bond for the payment of money.  B denies the making of bond.  The fact that at the time when the bond was alleged to be made,  B required money for particular purpose, is relevant.

Answer :   Under Section 8 of Evidence Act
121.     Wrongful gain means

 Answer :    Gain by unlawful means of property which the person gaining is not entitled
122.     Wrongful loss means

Answer :    Loss b unlawful means of property which he person losing it, is legally entitled
123.     Dishonestly has been defined as doing anything with intention to cause wrongful gain to one person and wrongful loss to another:

Answer :    Under section 24 IPC
124.     Fraudulently has been defined as doing anything with intent to defraud:

Answer :    Under section 25 of IPC
125.     Section 34 of IPC

Answer creats a substantive offense
126.     Under section 46 of IPC, death denotes:

Answer :   Death of a human being
127.     Illegal signifies

Answer :    All the above
128.     Nothing is said to be done or believed t be done in good faith which is done or believed without due care & intention- as defined:

Answer :    Under section 52 IPC
129.     Personating a public servant is an offence

Answer :   Under section  170 IPC
130.     The term injury as defined in Section 44 of IPC, means

Answer :   Any harm illegally to a person in body, mind, property and reputation
132.     For the application of section 34 IPC there must be at least

Answer :    Two persons
133.     Non attendance in obedience to an order from public servant is punishable:

Answer :    Under section 174 of IPC
134.     Furnishing false information to a public servant being legally bound is publishable

Answer :   Under section 177 of IPC
135.     Obstructing public servant in discharge of public functions is punishable

Answer :   Under section 186 of IPC
136.     Disobedience to order duly promulgated by public servant is punishable:

Answer :    Under section 188 of IPC
137.     Threat of injury to public servant is punishable

Answer :   Under section 189 of IPC
138.     Breach of contract to attend helpless person is punishable

Answer :   Under section 491 of IPC
139.     Commutation of sentence for imprisonment of life is provided:

Answer :    In section 55 of IPC
140.     Under section 73 IPC a convict can be put to solitary confinement but the total period of the same can not exceed

Answer :   Three months.
141.     In case of an offence punishable with fine only, imprisonment for non payment of fine

Answer :   has to be simple
142.     In IPC the pronoun he and its derivative are used to denote.

Answer :   Either
143     In IPC the word India means the territory of India excluding

Answer :    State of Jammu and Kashmir
144.     The word public servant has been defined in IPC

Answer :    In section 21
145.     The word special law has been defined in section 41 of IPC to mean

Answer :    A law applicable to a particular subject
146.     The unlawful engagement of public servant in trade is prohibited

Answer :    In section 168 of IPC
147.  The unlawful buying or bidding in property by public servants is prohibited:

Answer :   In section 169 of IPC
148.     Under section 53 of IPC, offenders are liable to following types of punishments:

Answer :   Five
149.     A writes his name on the back of a bill of exchange.  As the effect of this endorsement is transfer the right to the bill to any person, who may become lawful holder of it:

Answer :    The endorsement is a valuable security
150.     The concept of common intention to fasten criminal liability has been provided.

Answer :    In section 34 of IPC
Solved by s jayachandran , SA , Mavelikara Division.9961464279


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