Solved question Paper of IPO Examination held on 29th January 2012

1  In which  case it was  held by  the supreme court that  preamble is the basic feature of the constitution Answer  :  in re Keshwananda Bharti

2   In which cases it was held by  the supreme court that an amendment of the constitution  under article 368 was law within  the meaning of article 13 Answer : in re In GolakNath Case

3 The number of articles in Indian  constitution is Answer  395

4 The list of states and union territories is mentioned in which  schedule of the constitution Answer  First

5 The establishment and constitution of supreme  Court has been provided in Answer  Article 124

6  Which provision of constitution says that civil   and judicial  authorities to act in aid to Supreme court? Answer  Article 144

7 Which provision  of constitution says that High courts to be courts of record Answer  Article  215

8  Writ jurisdiction of supreme court is provided on art 32 and that of high courts art 226 Answer

9 Gram Sabha has been created under which article of constitution Answer   Article 243 A

10 Right to property under art 300A is  a Answer Constitutional Right

11 Power of parliament to restrict trade and  commerce has been described in Answer Article 302

12 Public service commissions for the union and states are created Answer : Article 315

13 The rules of dismissal and reduction of rank  of civil servants emanates from Answer   article 311 of constitution

14  Power of governor  to grant pardon is given in Answer    Art 161

15 Preventive detention according to Art 22 can be enforced Answer

16 Proclamation of emergency is valid up to  Answer  It has to be for 6 months only and it needed further a second resolution has to be passed

17 Protection in respect of conviction for offences is provided under Answer   Article 20

18 In  the Indian Polity , ultimate sovereignty rests with  Answer  :  The people

19 The prime minister is    Answer :          Head of the government

20 The finance commission is appointed by the Answer : President

21 Which article provides fundamental right of right to education Answer :  Article 21A

22 In india who  is the legal advisor  to the state government Answer : Advocate  General

Q23  If directive principles of states  policy  is infringed Answer: There is no remedy by judicial proceedings

Q24  Indira  sawheny V union  of India  is a  case dealing with Answer : Reservation for OBC

25  Article 17 of the  constitution Answer : Abolishes  untouchability

26 which part of the constitution  reflects the mind and  ideals  of the framers Answer : Preamble

27  The power of institution of suits and proceedings against the central government and state government is provided in which article Answer  Article 300

28The attorney General  of India holds office  during  the pleasure of the Answer : President

29 The eighth  schedule of the constitution contains Answer : List of language recognaized by the constitution

30 National emergency can be declared by the president Answer : On recommendation of the council  of ministers

31 The provisions of art 311 does not apply to Answer All of these

32 who decides whether a bill is a money bill or not Answer :Speaker of the Lok Sabha

33 who is the Ex – office Chairman of the Raja Sabha Answer : The Vice-President

34 Which article seperates Judiciary from executive Answer :Habeas Corpus

35 All  india  services has been created  under which article Answer :Article 50

36 Which of the following  right is not provided under the consumer protection act Answer : Article 312

37  The pecuniary jurisdiction of consumer state commission is Answer : Right to punish

38 The pecuniary jurisdiction of consumer state commission is Answer : None of the above

39 The limitation for filling appeal  under the consumer protection act is  Answer : 30 days from the order

40 Medical services were brought under the consumer protection act by the supreme court in the famous case of  Answer : Indian medical association v V.P shata

41  Consumer mentioned u/section 2 of the act includes Answer  Both of them

42 The limitation for filing a  consumer complaint is Answer : Two year

43 The delay in filing consumer complaint can be condoned under Answer: Section 24 A(2) of the Act

44 Consumer disputes  redressal fourm to be known as   Answer : District Forum

45 The responsibility of a consumer under the act  includes Answer:  All of the above

46  Appeal  from the orders of consumer national commission lies to Answer : Supreme Court

47 under which  provision district forum can impose punitive damages Answer: Section 14(d) of the Act

48 A person against whom  an order has been passed by the district forum may go  into appeal to the consumer state commission subject to  his depositing Answer :Lesser of (A) & (B)

49 The president of consumer state  commission is appointed by the state government in  constitution with the Answer :Chief Justice of the High Court

50 The pecuniary jurisdiction of  consumer national commission is Answer : Above 1 Core

51 The provision of transfer of complaints from one district forum to another within the state vests with the state commission under  Answer : Section 17 A of the Act

52 The word  “information “ under the  RTI act includes Answer : Both of them

53  The RTI act  came into effect in the year Answer : 2005

54  The provision of the RTI act giving  citizen right to  information is Answer : Section 3

55 The language of an application  under the RTI act may be  Answer : All of the above

56  The period for filing  appeal under the RTI act  is     Answer : 30  days

57  An application making request for information Answer : Shall not be required to give any reason for requesting the information

58 The general time limit for providing information sought under  RTI act is Answer : 30 days

59 The type of information exempted under the RTI act  are mentioned in  Answer : Section 8

60 The term  of offices for the chief information commissioner and information commissioners is Answer : Five year and  superannuation age being 65 years, whichever is earlier

61  Bar of Jursdiction of courts in respect of any  order made under the RTI act is contained in Answer : Section 23

62 The umbrella organization under the RTI act to coordinates and monitor the implementation of the  provisions of the act is Answer : National Advisory council

63  The object of the RTI act is Answer : All the above

64  RTI act applies to  Answer : Only A & B

65  The period for  filling second appeal under section 19 of the RTI act is Answer : 90 days

66  The limit  of penalty  to be  imposed by the state information commission or the central information commission under section 20  of the act on the principal information officer  is rupees  Answer :

67  Number of chapters in the Indian  penal code 1860 are Answer : 23

68 How many types of punishments have been prescribed under the Indian penal code Answer : Five

69  Chapter V of Indian  penal code deals with  Answer : Abetment

70  abettor is a person Answer : Who instigates the commission of offence

71  Preventing services of  summons or other proceeding or preventing publication thereof shall be published with Answer : Any of A and B

72  Under section  99 the right of private defence is Available against public servants only when  their acts cause reasonable apprehension  of death  or grievous  hurt

73  A public  servant absconding to avoid service of summons or other proceeding shall be punished with Answer : Simple imprisonment for 1 month an fine Rs 500

74  Obstructing public servant in discharge functions shall be punished with  Answer : Imprisonment for 3 months, or fine of Rs 500/- or both

75 Numbers of chapters in the Indian evidence act 1872 Answer : 11

76  indian evidence act  1872 does not apply on affidavits and arbitration Answer : Correct statement

77 Relevancy is

78 RTI act 2005 covers all the state in the India  except Answer :  Jammu & Kashmir

79 Which  one of the following is not a member of  committee for appointment of CIC Answer :  Speaker of Lok sabha

80  which of the following  is not a writ  provided in the constitution of india

81  Code of civil procedure came in to force in the year Answer  01-01-2009 1908

82  Mesne  profits under CPC means Answer : Owner of property

83 Foreign judgment under CPC means Answer : The Judgment  of  foreign court

84  Decree of a civil  court means and  includes

85 Judgment debtor means Answer :A person against whom decree has been passed

86  Pleader menas Answer : Any person entitled to appear and plead for another in court

87 The word  judge under CPC  means Answer :  Presiding officer of a Civil Court

88 The word ‘ order ‘under section 2 of CPC means Answer : formal expression of any decision of a Civil Court

89 Share  in a corporation shall be  deemed  to  include  Answer : Bond , stock ,debenture stock

90  Apart from the state of Jammu & Kashmir which is the state where on whole of it CPC does not  apply Answer : Nagaland

91.     A proclamation under section 82 of CrPC can be issued against a person against whom a warrant has been issued Thus a proclamation can be issued against Answer :   Accused offender

92  Attachment of the property of the person absconding Answer :   Can be issued simultaneously with the publication of the proclamation of the proclamation u/s 82 of CrPC

93.     A proclamation requiring a person to appear must be published giving Answer :   Not less than 30 day time to the person concerned

94.     Period of limitation for filing claims and objections to the attachment of any property attached u/s 83 of CrPC by any person other than the proclaimed person, as provided u/s 84 of CrPC is Answer :   Within six month of attachment

95.     Period of limitation for filing a suit to establish the right over the property attached by a person other than the proclaimed person, who has filed claims and objections to the attachment, is Answer :    One year from the date of disallowing the claim

96.     If the person proclaimed appears within the period specified in the proclamation, the property attached: Answer :    Shall be released from attachment

97.     The right of claiming the attached property or sale proceeds thereof by the proclaimed person flows from: Answer :    Section 85 of Cr.PC

98.     If the proclaimed person does not appear within the period specified in the proclamation, the property under attached: Answer :   Both A and B

99.     A proclaimed person whose property has been attached can claim the property or the sale proceeds, on appearance. Answer :    Within two year of attachment

100.     The right of claiming the attached property or sale proceeds thereof by the proclaimed person is subject to his satisfying the court that: Answer :   Both A and B

101.     The power of issuing proclamation u/s 82 CrPC Answer :   All the above

102.     A proclamation issued u/s 82 CrPC is issued Answer :   To secure the attendance of the person concerned before the court

103.     Attachment order u/s 83 of CrPC is to be passed Answer :  by a court issuing proclamation u/sec 82 Crpc

104.     Attachment u/s 83 CrPC of a land paying revenue to the state government, be made Answer :    Through the District collector within whose jurisdiction land is situated.

105.     A  fact forming  of the same transaction is relevant u/s 6 of Evidence Act: Answer :   Through not in issue and may have occurred at the same time & place or at different time & place

106.     Several classes of facts, which are connected with the transaction(s) in a particular mode are relevant Answer :   Under Section 6 of Evidence Act

107.     Motive behind an Act is relevant Answer :   Under Section 8 of Evidence Act

108.     Preparation for an Act is relevant: Answer :   Under Section 8 of Evidence Act

109     Under section 8 of Evidence Act conduct is relevant: Answer :   Both A&B

110.     Under section 8 of Evidence Act: Answer :  All the above are relevant

111.     When the conduct of any person is relevant, any statement made to him or in his presence and hearing, which affects such conduct is relevant: Answer :   Under Section 8 of Evidence Act

112.     Facts which are cause of facts in issue are relevant Answer :   Under Section 7 of Evidence Act

113.     A person is not entitled to give evidence of fact which he is disentitled to prove by any provision of law Answer :   Under Section 5 of Evidence Act

114.     The question is, whether certain goods ordered from B were delivered to A, The goods were delivered to several intermediate persons successively.  Each delivery is a relevant fact: Answer :   Under Section 7 of Evidence Act

115.     The question is, whether  A murdered B Marks on the ground, produced by a struggle at or near the place where the murder was committed are relevant Facts: Answer :   Under Section 7 of Evidence Act

116.     A is accused of murder of B by beating him.  Whatever was said or done by A or B or the by-standers at the beating, is a relevant fact: Answer :   Under Section 6 of Evidence Act

117.     A is tired for murder of B by poison.  The fact that before the death of B,  A procured poison similar to that which was administered to B, is a relevant fact: Answer :   Under Section 8 of Evidence Act

118.     The question is is whether A committed a crime.  The fact that A absconded after receiving a letter warning that enquiry was being made for the criminal and contents of the letter, are relevant: Answer :   Under Section 8 of Evidence Act

119.     The question is, whether A was robbed.  The fact that soon after the alleged robbery, he made a complaint relating to the offence detailing the circumstances, are relevant: Answer :   Under Section 8 of Evidence Act

120.     A sues B upon a bond for the payment of money.  B denies the making of bond.  The fact that at the time when the bond was alleged to be made,  B required money for particular purpose, is relevant. Answer :   Under Section 8 of Evidence Act

121.     Wrongful gain means  Answer :    Gain by unlawful means of property which the person gaining is not entitled

122.     Wrongful loss means Answer :    Loss b unlawful means of property which he person losing it, is legally entitled

123.     Dishonestly has been defined as doing anything with intention to cause wrongful gain to one person and wrongful loss to another: Answer :    Under section 24 IPC

124.     Fraudulently has been defined as doing anything with intent to defraud: Answer :    Under section 25 of IPC

125.     Section 34 of IPC Answer creats a substantive offense

126.     Under section 46 of IPC, death denotes: Answer :   Death of a human being

127.     Illegal signifies Answer :    All the above

128.     Nothing is said to be done or believed t be done in good faith which is done or believed without due care & intention- as defined: Answer :    Under section 52 IPC

129.     Personating a public servant is an offence Answer :   Under section  170 IPC

130.     The term injury as defined in Section 44 of IPC, means Answer :   Any harm illegally to a person in body, mind, property and reputation

132.     For the application of section 34 IPC there must be at least Answer :    Two persons 133.     Non attendance in obedience to an order from public servant is punishable: Answer :    Under section 174 of IPC

134.     Furnishing false information to a public servant being legally bound is publishable Answer :   Under section 177 of IPC

135.     Obstructing public servant in discharge of public functions is punishable Answer :   Under section 186 of IPC

136.     Disobedience to order duly promulgated by public servant is punishable: Answer :    Under section 188 of IPC

137.     Threat of injury to public servant is punishable Answer :   Under section 189 of IPC

138.     Breach of contract to attend helpless person is punishable Answer :   Under section 491 of IPC

139.     Commutation of sentence for imprisonment of life is provided: Answer :    In section 55 of IPC

140.     Under section 73 IPC a convict can be put to solitary confinement but the total period of the same can not exceed Answer :   Three months.

141.     In case of an offence punishable with fine only, imprisonment for non payment of fine Answer :   has to be simple

142.     In IPC the pronoun he and its derivative are used to denote. Answer :   Either

143     In IPC the word India means the territory of India excluding Answer :    State of Jammu and Kashmir

144.     The word public servant has been defined in IPC Answer :    In section 21

145.     The word special law has been defined in section 41 of IPC to mean Answer :    A law applicable to a particular subject

146.     The unlawful engagement of public servant in trade is prohibited Answer :    In section 168 of IPC

147.  The unlawful buying or bidding in property by public servants is prohibited: Answer :   In section 169 of IPC

148.     Under section 53 of IPC, offenders are liable to following types of punishments: Answer :   Five

149.     A writes his name on the back of a bill of exchange.  As the effect of this endorsement is transfer the right to the bill to any person, who may become lawful holder of it: Answer :    The endorsement is a valuable security

150.     The concept of common intention to fasten criminal liability has been provided. Answer :    In section 34 of IPC

Solved by s jayachandran , SA , Mavelikara Division.9961464279