Latest Updates from CHQ

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February 24, 2012

CHQ News : Upgradation of Grade Pay of Inspector, Posts from Rs.4200/- to Rs. 4600/-

Rajesh Kumawat | 07:50 | | | Best Blogger Tips

No. CHQ/IPASP/1/2012 Dated : 22/2/2012. 

To,
Ms Yesodhara Menon,
Member (P),
Department of Posts,
Dak Bhavan, Sansad Marg,
New Delhi 110 001.

Subject : Minutes of the meeting taken by the Member (Personnel) with All India Association of Inspectors and Assistant Superintendents Posts on 3/11/2011. 

Ref. : Directorate Letter No. 01/01/2011-SR dated 14/11/2011.

Respected Madam,
The 37th All India Biennial Conference of this Association was held at Bangaluru on 28th and 29th January, 2012. In the Conference, the matter related to merger of the posts IP and ASP was deliberated in depth and the house passed a resolution unanimously as under:

“This Association is against the merger of Inspector Posts and Assistant Superintendents Posts Cadre. Inspector Posts should be granted Grade Pay of Rs. 4600/- with effect from 01/01/2006 at par with Inspectors of CBDT / CBEC in tune with directions of the Hon’ble CAT, Ernakulam Bench”.

In view of the above resolution, it is requested that action may please be taken to implement the orders of Hon’ble CAT, Ernakulam Bench to upgrade the grade pay of Inspector Posts from Rs. 4200/- to Rs. 4600/- with effect from 1.1.2006.

                                                                                                                             Yours sincerely,
                                                                                                                                 (Vilas Ingale)
                                                                                                                             General Secretary

February 22, 2012

CONSIDERATATION OF COMPASSIONATE ENGAGEMENT ON GDS POSTS TO DEPANDANTS OF GRAMIN DAK SEVAKS DISCHARGED ON MEDICAL GROUNDS BASED ON PROOF OF INVALIDATION PRIOR TO 14.12.2010

Rajesh Kumawat | 21:37 | | Best Blogger Tips

Government of India
Ministry of Communication & IT
Department of Posts
(GDS Section)
Dak Bhawan, Sandad Marg
New Delhi – 110001

No. 19-19/2009-GDS                                                                                        Dated: 21 Feb 2012

Chef Postmaster General
Postmaster General

CONSIDERATATION OF COMPASSIONATE ENGAGEMENT ON GDS POSTS TO DEPANDANTS OF GRAMIN DAK SEVAKS DISCHARGED ON MEDICAL GROUNDS BASED ON PROOF OF INVALIDATION PRIOR TO 14.12.2010

            A reference is invited to Para 7(d) of this Directorate letter No. 17-17/2010-GDS dated 14.12.2010 wherein it was provided that "this percentage of 10% shall only apply to cover cases of wards of deceased GDS and not to GDS acquiring disability during service defined in the Persons with Disabilities Act, 1995. Section 47 of the Persons with Disabilities Act, 1995 provides that no establishment shall dispense with or reduce in rank an employee who acquires a disability during his service as also no promotion shall be denied to a person merely on the ground of his disability. In case of a GDS acquiring a disability during his service and is considered to be unsuitable for the GDS post he was holding, could be shifted to some other post with the same TRCA." The ceiling of 10% was further removed with revised provisions under this Directorate letter No. even dated 01.08.2011.

2.         The issue of allowing compassionate engagements to one of the dependant of the GDS discharged on invalidation on medical grounds supported by the invalidation proof has been considered in this Directorate and it has now been decided to allow considering compassionate engagement to one of the words of invalidated GDS discharged before the date of issue of this Directorate letter No. 17-17/2010-GDS dated 14.12.2010 on consideration of the indigent condition of the family taking recourse to the application of the same provisions of compassionate engagement and process as were in force at the time of discharge of the GDS on invalidation, without a further reference to this Directorate.

3.         It is, however, clarified once again that the provision contained in Para 7 (d) of this Directorate letter No. 17-17/2010-GDS dated 14.12.2010 as amended may be observed scrupulously and no GDS is allowed to be discharged on invalidation observing the provisions of Section 47 of the Persons with Disabilities Act, 1995. In case a GDS acquires a disability during his service and is considered to be unsuitable for the GDS post he was holding, he/she may be shifted to some other post with the same TRCA. If at all some genuine difficulty arises about the nature of work to be extracted from him and the concerned HOC is personally convinced of the grounds in individual cases, the Circles may take up the issue of appropriate cases with the Training Division of this Directorate.

4.         The instructions contained in Para 7(d) of this Directorate letter No. 17-17/2010-GDS dated 14.12.2010 & the present instructions would cover the cases of the GDS where a GDS was permitted to be discharged during the period from 01.01.1996 to 13.12.2010 by the prescribed appointing authority based on medical invalidation by a medical board of a Government Hospital and the disability would cover only the disabilities mentioned and defined in Section 2 of the PWD Act, 1995." While considering the cases under this provision, Head of the Circle would personally ensure that only the cases fulfilling the requisite conditions are considered for compassionate engagement.

5.         The above provisions may be brought to the notice of all concerned for strict compliance. This issue with the approval of Secretary(Posts).
 
       Sd/-
(Surender Kumar)
Assistant Director General (GDS) 

Charging Extra premium on PLI policies taken by physically Challenged persons - High Court Delhi raps Govt.

Rajesh Kumawat | 11:24 | Best Blogger Tips

Complaints of discrimination against the disabled are common in matters of civic amenities, job appointments and admissions to educational institutions. But now one such case has emerged in relation to a life insurance scheme floated by the central government itself.
Slamming the Centre, the Delhi High Court has said it will quash its postal life insurance policy that charges the physically challenged extra premium.
State and central government employees are the beneficiaries of this policy. As per its rules, the assured sum for the disabled is much less while the premium much more than what is applicable to ordinary employees. The discrimination was brought to the notice of the court by a PIL filed by a visually challenged lawyer, Pankaj Sinha.
"Why this discrimination? How can you charge the disabled extra premium? They have the same risk factor as ordinary policyholders. The premium should be linked to various ailments — not disability," a bench headed by acting chief justice AK Sikri told the Centre's counsel.
"Disability is not a disease or a medical problem. We are going to quash the policy," the court said. Sinha told the bench: "While non-handicapped persons are insured for a maximum of Rs 5 lakh, disabled people are insured for a maximum of only Rs 1 lakh. The premium paid by disabled people is also more than the premium for non-disabled people."
The court rejected the Centre's argument that disabled people are more prone to accidental risks as compared to persons without any disability and therefore the premium charged should be marginally different.
Source : The Hindustan Times, Feb 20, 2012

February 17, 2012

REGULATION OF STRIKE PERIOD- REITERATION OF INSTRUCTIONS ISSUED VIDE LETTER NO. 8/27/97 SR (Pt) DATED 23.06.1998.

Rajesh Kumawat | 11:46 | Best Blogger Tips
D.G. Posts No. 8/15/2011-SR dated 1st February, 2012.

            As you aware, the Postal Joint Council Action served a notice of Indefinite Strike with effect from 17.01.2012 accompanied by a 25 point Charter of Demands. All the items were discussed in detail in a series of meetings taken by Secretary/Members of the Postal Services Board and minutes of the meeting were sent to you vide communication dated 16.01.2012.

2.         In this regard attention is invited to para 24 of the minutes of the meeting dealing with imposing FR-17A against strikers. Instructions on the subject were issued by the Department vide D.O. letter No. 8-27/97-SR (Pt) under the signature of the then Member Development which inter alia states that the provisions of FR-17A in respect of Departmental Employees and Rule 23 of ED Conduct and Service Rules -1964 in respect of EDs (Since substituted by GDS (Conduct & Engagement Rules, 2011) may be invoked only in cases of incitement, instances of violence /sabotage etc. The Department is following these instructions in the matter of regulating the strike period/strike situation. It is requested to review the action taken in this regard in the light of the aforesaid instructions, under intimation to this office.


Sd/-
(Subhash Chander)
Director SR &Legal
Courtesy : NFPE
[http://nfpe.blogspot.in/]

February 16, 2012

SB Order No. 02/2012 : KYC for Savings Account

Rajesh Kumawat | 09:42 | Best Blogger Tips

New Mail operational arrangements

Rajesh Kumawat | 09:38 | Best Blogger Tips

The existing mail offices have been classified into Level 1 (L-1) and Level 2 (L-2) mail offices. There would be 89  L-1 and 244 L-2 mail offices under the new set up
 All L-1 mail offices will close direct bags for each other. An  L-1 office will also close bags for all L-2 offices as well as delivery post offices mapped/attached to it
 All L-2 offices attached/mapped to it an L-1 office can close bags for that particular office. An L-2 office may also close bags for all other L-2 offices mapped to the same L-1 office if the need be. It will also close bags for all delivery post offices mapped to it.
 An L-2 mail office would not close bags for any other L-1 office to which it is not mapped. Similarly an L-2 office will not close bags for any other L-2 office which is not mapped to the same L-1 office. However, there may be a situation where an L-2 office may require closing bags for an L-1 or L-2 office falling in the same circle or neighboring circle for transmission advantage. Circles should try to keep this number to the bare minimum to the extent possible. In all such exceptional cases, the circle concerned should furnish the list of such offices and destinations for which bag closing is required and seek approval of the Directorate.
Post Offices would prepare two kinds of bags (separate for unregistered and registered mail) for their parent mail office (L-1 or L-2 as the case may be), which would be as follows.
 A bag containing TD mail to be delivered by post offices mapped to the same parent mail office  (for unregistered mail)
  A bag containing non-TD (NTD) i.e. all mail other than TD , to be delivered by post offices not mapped to the same parent mail office (for unregistered mail)
 A bag containing TD mail to be delivered by the post offices mapped to the same parent mail office ( for registered mail).
A bag containing non-TD (NTD) mail, i.e. all mail other than TD, to be delivered by post offices no mapped to the same parent mail office ( for registered mail)
Post Offices would continue to retain station article i.e. articles to be delivered from the same post office in case of both unregistered and registered articles
The new operational network would come into effect from 15th February, 2012.

Source : http://nfpemavelikaradivision.blogspot.com

February 6, 2012

Solved question Paper of IPO Examination held on 29th January 2012

Rajesh Kumawat | 20:57 | Best Blogger Tips

1  In which  case it was  held by  the supreme court that  preamble is the basic feature of the constitution

Answer  :  in re Keshwananda Bharti
2   In which cases it was held by  the supreme court that an amendment of the constitution  under article 368 was law within  the meaning of article 13

Answer : in re In GolakNath Case
3 The number of articles in Indian  constitution is

Answer  395 
4 The list of states and union territories is mentioned in which  schedule of the constitution

Answer  First 
5 The establishment and constitution of supreme  Court has been provided in

Answer  Article 124
6  Which provision of constitution says that civil   and judicial  authorities to act in aid to Supreme court?

Answer  Article 144
7 Which provision  of constitution says that High courts to be courts of record

Answer  Article  215
8  Writ jurisdiction of supreme court is provided on art 32 and that of high courts art 226

Answer
9 Gram Sabha has been created under which article of constitution

Answer   Article 243 A
10 Right to property under art 300A is  a

Answer Constitutional Right
11 Power of parliament to restrict trade and  commerce has been described in

Answer Article 302

12 Public service commissions for the union and states are created

Answer : Article 315
13 The rules of dismissal and reduction of rank  of civil servants emanates from

Answer   article 311 of constitution
14  Power of governor  to grant pardon is given in

Answer    Art 161
15 Preventive detention according to Art 22 can be enforced

Answer
16 Proclamation of emergency is valid up to 

Answer  It has to be for 6 months only and it needed further a second resolution has to be passed
17 Protection in respect of conviction for offences is provided under

Answer   Article 20
18 In  the Indian Polity , ultimate sovereignty rests with 

Answer  :  The people
19 The prime minister is

   Answer :          Head of the government
20 The finance commission is appointed by the

Answer : President
21 Which article provides fundamental right of right to education

Answer :  Article 21A
22 In india who  is the legal advisor  to the state government

Answer : Advocate  General

Q23  If directive principles of states  policy  is infringed
Answer: There is no remedy by judicial proceedings
Q24  Indira  sawheny V union  of India  is a  case dealing with
Answer : Reservation for OBC
25  Article 17 of the  constitution
Answer : Abolishes  untouchability 
26 which part of the constitution  reflects the mind and  ideals  of the framers
Answer : Preamble
27  The power of institution of suits and proceedings against the central government and state government is provided in which article
Answer  Article 300
28The attorney General  of India holds office  during  the pleasure of the
Answer : President
29 The eighth  schedule of the constitution contains
Answer : List of language recognaized by the constitution
30 National emergency can be declared by the president
Answer : On recommendation of the council  of ministers
31 The provisions of art 311 does not apply to
Answer All of these
32 who decides whether a bill is a money bill or not
Answer :Speaker of the Lok Sabha
33 who is the Ex – office Chairman of the Raja Sabha
Answer : The Vice-President

34 Which article seperates Judiciary from executive
Answer :Habeas Corpus
35 All  india  services has been created  under which article
Answer :Article 50
36 Which of the following  right is not provided under the consumer protection act
Answer : Article 312
37  The pecuniary jurisdiction of consumer state commission is
Answer : Right to punish
38 The pecuniary jurisdiction of consumer state commission is
Answer : None of the above
39 The limitation for filling appeal  under the consumer protection act is
 Answer : 30 days from the order
40 Medical services were brought under the consumer protection act by the supreme court in the famous case of
 Answer : Indian medical association v V.P shata
41  Consumer mentioned u/section 2 of the act includes
Answer  Both of them
42 The limitation for filing a  consumer complaint is
Answer : Two year
43 The delay in filing consumer complaint can be condoned under
Answer: Section 24 A(2) of the Act
44 Consumer disputes  redressal fourm to be known as 
 Answer : District Forum
45 The responsibility of a consumer under the act  includes
Answer:  All of the above
46  Appeal  from the orders of consumer national commission lies to
Answer : Supreme Court
47 under which  provision district forum can impose punitive damages
Answer: Section 14(d) of the Act
48 A person against whom  an order has been passed by the district forum may go  into appeal to the consumer state commission subject to  his depositing
Answer :Lesser of (A) & (B)
49 The president of consumer state  commission is appointed by the state government in  constitution with the
Answer :Chief Justice of the High Court
50 The pecuniary jurisdiction of  consumer national commission is
Answer : Above 1 Core
51 The provision of transfer of complaints from one district forum to another within the state vests with the state commission under 
Answer : Section 17 A of the Act
52 The word  “information “ under the  RTI act includes
Answer : Both of them
53  The RTI act  came into effect in the year
Answer : 2005
54  The provision of the RTI act giving  citizen right to  information is
Answer : Section 3
55 The language of an application  under the RTI act may be
 Answer : All of the above
56  The period for filing  appeal under the RTI act  is  
  Answer : 30  days
57  An application making request for information
Answer : Shall not be required to give any reason for requesting the information
58 The general time limit for providing information sought under  RTI act is
Answer : 30 days
59 The type of information exempted under the RTI act  are mentioned in 
Answer : Section 8
60 The term  of offices for the chief information commissioner and information commissioners is
Answer : Five year and  superannuation age being 65 years, whichever is earlier
61  Bar of Jursdiction of courts in respect of any  order made under the RTI act is contained in
Answer : Section 23
62 The umbrella organization under the RTI act to coordinates and monitor the implementation of the  provisions of the act is
Answer : National Advisory council
63  The object of the RTI act is
Answer : All the above
64  RTI act applies to 
Answer : Only A & B
65  The period for  filling second appeal under section 19 of the RTI act is
Answer : 90 days
66  The limit  of penalty  to be  imposed by the state information commission or the central information commission under section 20  of the act on the principal information officer  is rupees 
Answer :
67  Number of chapters in the Indian  penal code 1860 are
Answer : 23
68 How many types of punishments have been prescribed under the Indian penal code
Answer : Five
69  Chapter V of Indian  penal code deals with
 Answer : Abetment
70  abettor is a person
Answer : Who instigates the commission of offence
71  Preventing services of  summons or other proceeding or preventing publication thereof shall be published with
Answer : Any of A and B
72  Under section  99 the right of private defence is
Available against public servants only when  their acts cause reasonable apprehension  of death  or grievous  hurt
73  A public  servant absconding to avoid service of summons or other proceeding shall be punished with
Answer : Simple imprisonment for 1 month an fine Rs 500
74  Obstructing public servant in discharge functions shall be punished with
 Answer : Imprisonment for 3 months, or fine of Rs 500/- or both
75 Numbers of chapters in the Indian evidence act 1872
Answer : 11
76  indian evidence act  1872 does not apply on affidavits and arbitration
Answer : Correct statement
77 Relevancy is

78 RTI act 2005 covers all the state in the India  except
Answer :  Jammu & Kashmir
79 Which  one of the following is not a member of  committee for appointment of CIC
Answer :  Speaker of Lok sabha
80  which of the following  is not a writ  provided in the constitution of india

81  Code of civil procedure came in to force in the year

Answer  01-01-2009 1908
82  Mesne  profits under CPC means
Answer : Owner of property
83 Foreign judgment under CPC means
Answer : The Judgment  of  foreign court
84  Decree of a civil  court means and  includes

85 Judgment debtor means

Answer :A person against whom decree has been passed
86  Pleader menas
Answer : Any person entitled to appear and plead for another in court 
87 The word  judge under CPC  means

Answer :  Presiding officer of a Civil Court
88 The word ‘ order ‘under section 2 of CPC means
Answer : formal expression of any decision of a Civil Court 
89 Share  in a corporation shall be  deemed  to  include 
Answer : Bond , stock ,debenture stock
90  Apart from the state of Jammu & Kashmir which is the state where on whole of it CPC does not  apply
Answer : Nagaland

91.     A proclamation under section 82 of CrPC can be issued against a person against whom a warrant has been issued Thus a proclamation can be issued against

Answer :   Accused offender
92  Attachment of the property of the person absconding

Answer :   Can be issued simultaneously with the publication of the proclamation of the proclamation u/s 82 of CrPC
93.     A proclamation requiring a person to appear must be published giving

Answer :   Not less than 30 day time to the person concerned
94.     Period of limitation for filing claims and objections to the attachment of any property attached u/s 83 of CrPC by any person other than the proclaimed person, as provided u/s 84 of CrPC is

Answer :   Within six month of attachment
95.     Period of limitation for filing a suit to establish the right over the property attached by a person other than the proclaimed person, who has filed claims and objections to the attachment, is

Answer :    One year from the date of disallowing the claim
96.     If the person proclaimed appears within the period specified in the proclamation, the property attached:

Answer :    Shall be released from attachment
97.     The right of claiming the attached property or sale proceeds thereof by the proclaimed person flows from:

Answer :    Section 85 of Cr.PC
98.     If the proclaimed person does not appear within the period specified in the proclamation, the property under attached:

Answer :   Both A and B
99.     A proclaimed person whose property has been attached can claim the property or the sale proceeds, on appearance.

Answer :    Within two year of attachment
100.     The right of claiming the attached property or sale proceeds thereof by the proclaimed person is subject to his satisfying the court that:

Answer :   Both A and B
101.     The power of issuing proclamation u/s 82 CrPC

Answer :   All the above
102.     A proclamation issued u/s 82 CrPC is issued

Answer :   To secure the attendance of the person concerned before the court
103.     Attachment order u/s 83 of CrPC is to be passed

Answer :  by a court issuing proclamation u/sec 82 Crpc
104.     Attachment u/s 83 CrPC of a land paying revenue to the state government, be made

Answer :    Through the District collector within whose jurisdiction land is situated.
105.     A  fact forming  of the same transaction is relevant u/s 6 of Evidence Act:

Answer :   Through not in issue and may have occurred at the same time & place or at different time & place
106.     Several classes of facts, which are connected with the transaction(s) in a particular mode are relevant

Answer :   Under Section 6 of Evidence Act
107.     Motive behind an Act is relevant

Answer :   Under Section 8 of Evidence Act
108.     Preparation for an Act is relevant:

Answer :   Under Section 8 of Evidence Act
109     Under section 8 of Evidence Act conduct is relevant:

Answer :   Both A&B
110.     Under section 8 of Evidence Act:

Answer :  All the above are relevant
111.     When the conduct of any person is relevant, any statement made to him or in his presence and hearing, which affects such conduct is relevant:

Answer :   Under Section 8 of Evidence Act
112.     Facts which are cause of facts in issue are relevant

Answer :   Under Section 7 of Evidence Act
113.     A person is not entitled to give evidence of fact which he is disentitled to prove by any provision of law

Answer :   Under Section 5 of Evidence Act
114.     The question is, whether certain goods ordered from B were delivered to A, The goods were delivered to several intermediate persons successively.  Each delivery is a relevant fact:

Answer :   Under Section 7 of Evidence Act
115.     The question is, whether  A murdered B Marks on the ground, produced by a struggle at or near the place where the murder was committed are relevant Facts:

Answer :   Under Section 7 of Evidence Act
116.     A is accused of murder of B by beating him.  Whatever was said or done by A or B or the by-standers at the beating, is a relevant fact:

Answer :   Under Section 6 of Evidence Act
117.     A is tired for murder of B by poison.  The fact that before the death of B,  A procured poison similar to that which was administered to B, is a relevant fact:

Answer :   Under Section 8 of Evidence Act
118.     The question is is whether A committed a crime.  The fact that A absconded after receiving a letter warning that enquiry was being made for the criminal and contents of the letter, are relevant:

Answer :   Under Section 8 of Evidence Act
119.     The question is, whether A was robbed.  The fact that soon after the alleged robbery, he made a complaint relating to the offence detailing the circumstances, are relevant:

Answer :   Under Section 8 of Evidence Act
120.     A sues B upon a bond for the payment of money.  B denies the making of bond.  The fact that at the time when the bond was alleged to be made,  B required money for particular purpose, is relevant.

Answer :   Under Section 8 of Evidence Act
121.     Wrongful gain means

 Answer :    Gain by unlawful means of property which the person gaining is not entitled
122.     Wrongful loss means

Answer :    Loss b unlawful means of property which he person losing it, is legally entitled
123.     Dishonestly has been defined as doing anything with intention to cause wrongful gain to one person and wrongful loss to another:

Answer :    Under section 24 IPC
124.     Fraudulently has been defined as doing anything with intent to defraud:

Answer :    Under section 25 of IPC
125.     Section 34 of IPC

Answer creats a substantive offense
126.     Under section 46 of IPC, death denotes:

Answer :   Death of a human being
127.     Illegal signifies

Answer :    All the above
128.     Nothing is said to be done or believed t be done in good faith which is done or believed without due care & intention- as defined:

Answer :    Under section 52 IPC
129.     Personating a public servant is an offence

Answer :   Under section  170 IPC
130.     The term injury as defined in Section 44 of IPC, means

Answer :   Any harm illegally to a person in body, mind, property and reputation
132.     For the application of section 34 IPC there must be at least

Answer :    Two persons
133.     Non attendance in obedience to an order from public servant is punishable:

Answer :    Under section 174 of IPC
134.     Furnishing false information to a public servant being legally bound is publishable

Answer :   Under section 177 of IPC
135.     Obstructing public servant in discharge of public functions is punishable

Answer :   Under section 186 of IPC
136.     Disobedience to order duly promulgated by public servant is punishable:

Answer :    Under section 188 of IPC
137.     Threat of injury to public servant is punishable

Answer :   Under section 189 of IPC
138.     Breach of contract to attend helpless person is punishable

Answer :   Under section 491 of IPC
139.     Commutation of sentence for imprisonment of life is provided:

Answer :    In section 55 of IPC
140.     Under section 73 IPC a convict can be put to solitary confinement but the total period of the same can not exceed

Answer :   Three months.
141.     In case of an offence punishable with fine only, imprisonment for non payment of fine

Answer :   has to be simple
142.     In IPC the pronoun he and its derivative are used to denote.

Answer :   Either
143     In IPC the word India means the territory of India excluding

Answer :    State of Jammu and Kashmir
144.     The word public servant has been defined in IPC

Answer :    In section 21
145.     The word special law has been defined in section 41 of IPC to mean

Answer :    A law applicable to a particular subject
146.     The unlawful engagement of public servant in trade is prohibited

Answer :    In section 168 of IPC
147.  The unlawful buying or bidding in property by public servants is prohibited:

Answer :   In section 169 of IPC
148.     Under section 53 of IPC, offenders are liable to following types of punishments:

Answer :   Five
149.     A writes his name on the back of a bill of exchange.  As the effect of this endorsement is transfer the right to the bill to any person, who may become lawful holder of it:

Answer :    The endorsement is a valuable security
150.     The concept of common intention to fasten criminal liability has been provided.

Answer :    In section 34 of IPC
Solved by s jayachandran , SA , Mavelikara Division.9961464279

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